4.1.4 Solved Problems: Continuous Random Variables
Problem
Let $X$ be a random variable with PDF given by
\begin{equation}
\nonumber f_X(x) = \left\{
\begin{array}{l l}
cx^2& \quad |x| \leq 1\\
0 & \quad \text{otherwise}
\end{array} \right.
\end{equation}
To find $c$, we can use $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f_X(u)du=1$:
$1$
$=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f_X(u)du$
$= \int_{-1}^{1} cu^2du$
$= \frac{2}{3} c.$
Thus, we must have $c=\frac{3}{2}$.
To find $EX$, we can write
$EX$
$= \int_{-1}^{1} u f_X(u)du$
$= \frac{3}{2}\int_{-1}^{1} u^3 du$
$=0.$
In fact, we could have guessed $EX=0$ because the PDF is symmetric around $x=0$.
To find Var$(X)$, we have
$\textrm{Var}(X)$
$=EX^2-(EX)^2=EX^2$
$= \int_{-1}^{1} u^2 f_X(u)du$
$= \frac{3}{2}\int_{-1}^{1} u^4 du$
$=\frac{3}{5}.$
To find $P(X \geq \frac{1}{2})$, we can write
$$P(X \geq \frac{1}{2})=\frac{3}{2} \int_{\frac{1}{2}}^{1} x^2dx=\frac{7}{16}.$$
Problem
Let $X$ be a continuous random variable with PDF given by
$$f_X(x)=\frac{1}{2}e^{-|x|}, \hspace{20pt} \textrm{for all }x \in \mathbb{R}.$$
If $Y=X^2$, find the CDF of $Y$.
Let $X$ be a continuous random variable with PDF
\begin{equation}
\nonumber f_X(x) = \left\{
\begin{array}{l l}
x^2\left(2x+\frac{3}{2}\right) & \quad 0 < x \leq 1\\
0 & \quad \text{otherwise}
\end{array} \right.
\end{equation}
If $Y=\frac{2}{X}+3$, find Var$(Y)$.
First, note that
$$\textrm{Var}(Y)=\textrm{Var}\left(\frac{2}{X}+3\right)=4\textrm{Var}\left(\frac{1}{X}\right), \hspace{15pt} \textrm{using Equation 4.4}$$
Thus, it suffices to find Var$(\frac{1}{X})=E[\frac{1}{X^2}]-(E[\frac{1}{X}])^2$. Using LOTUS, we have
$$E\left[\frac{1}{X}\right]=\int_{0}^{1} x\left(2x+\frac{3}{2}\right) dx =\frac{17}{12}$$
$$E\left[\frac{1}{X^2}\right]=\int_{0}^{1} \left(2x+\frac{3}{2}\right) dx =\frac{5}{2}.$$
Thus, Var$\left(\frac{1}{X}\right)=E[\frac{1}{X^2}]-(E[\frac{1}{X}])^2=\frac{71}{144}$. So, we obtain
$$\textrm{Var}(Y)=4\textrm{Var}\left(\frac{1}{X}\right)=\frac{71}{36}.$$
Problem
Let $X$ be a positive continuous random variable. Prove that $EX=\int_{0}^{\infty} P(X \geq x) dx$.
We have
$$P(X \geq x)=\int_{x}^{\infty}f_X(t)dt.$$
Thus, we need to show that
$$\int_{0}^{\infty} \int_{x}^{\infty}f_X(t)dtdx=EX.$$
The left hand side is a double integral. In particular, it is the integral of $f_X(t)$ over
the shaded region in Figure 4.4.
Fig.4.4 - The shaded area shows the region of the double integral of Problem 5.
We can take the integral with respect to $x$ or $t$. Thus, we can write
Here $Y=g(X)$, where $g$ is a differentiable function. Although $g$ is not monotone, it can
be divided to a finite number of regions in which it is monotone. Thus, we can use
Equation 4.6. We note that since $R_X=[-\frac{\pi}{2},\pi]$, $R_Y=[-1,1]$. By looking at
the plot of $g(x)=\sin(x)$ over $[-\frac{\pi}{2},\pi]$, we notice that for $y \in (0,1)$
there are two solutions to $y=g(x)$, while for $y \in (-1,0)$, there is only one solution.
In particular, if $y \in (0,1)$, we have two solutions: $x_1=\arcsin(y)$, and $x_2=\pi-\arcsin(y)$.
If $y \in (-1,0)$ we have one solution, $x_1=\arcsin(y)$. Thus, for $y \in(-1,0)$, we have